General Sample Questions

Questions from each subelement of the General pool. Pick an answer to see whether you're right, how everyone else did, and why.

General exam guide

G1 Commission’s rules

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

  1. The lower frequency portion
  2. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
  3. The upper frequency portion
  4. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

Answer: C, The upper frequency portion. When a phone segment is split by license class, the lowest frequencies go to the higher classes (Amateur Extra, then Advanced), and General licensees get the upper end. Section 97.301(d) shows this pattern: General phone is 3.800-4.000 MHz on 75 m, 7.175-7.300 MHz on 40 m, 14.225-14.350 MHz on 20 m and 21.275-21.450 MHz on 15 m.

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

  1. 20 watts PEP output
  2. 100 watts PEP output
  3. 200 watts PEP output
  4. 10 watts PEP output

Answer: B, 100 watts PEP output. Section 97.203(c) says the transmitter power of a beacon must not exceed 100 W. Beacons send one-way signals for propagation observation, often unattended for long periods. A modest cap keeps them useful for spotting band openings without adding interference. The limit applies on every band where a beacon operates.

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

  1. 180 days
  2. 30 days
  3. For as long as your current license is valid
  4. 365 days

Answer: D, 365 days. A CSCE is proof that you passed an exam element. Section 97.505(b) requires VEs to give credit for any element the CSCE shows passed within the previous 365 days. Section 97.9(b) likewise lets an upgrading licensee use the new privileges for up to 365 days while the grant is pending. After a year, the credit lapses and the element must be retaken.

G2 Operating procedures

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

  1. Only stations in Germany
  2. Any caller is welcome to respond
  3. Only contest stations
  4. Any stations outside the lower 48 states

Answer: D, Any stations outside the lower 48 states. 'CQ DX' means the caller wants contacts with distant stations. From the contiguous 48 states, that means anyone outside them: other countries, and also Alaska, Hawaii and US territories. Stations inside the lower 48 should hold off so the DX callers get through. Respecting the specific type of CQ is basic operating courtesy.

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

  1. No more than 2 hours per week
  2. No more than 2 hours per month
  3. No more than 1 hour per month
  4. No more than 1 hour per week

Answer: D, No more than 1 hour per week. Section 97.407(d)(4) limits RACES training drills and tests to a total of 1 hour per week. Longer exercises need approval from the chief emergency planning officer of the state, commonwealth, district or territory. With that approval, drills may run up to 72 hours, no more than twice in a calendar year.

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

  1. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
  2. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
  3. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
  4. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band

Answer: C, Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz. FT8 activity gathers on a few agreed frequencies on each band. On 20 m, operators set the USB dial to 14.074 MHz, and the software places signals within the roughly 3 kHz audio passband above it. That puts the actual transmissions between about 14.074 MHz and 14.077 MHz. Learn the 20 m dial frequency and remember that signals appear just above it.

G3 Radio wave propagation

What does the K-index measure?

  1. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
  2. The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
  3. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
  4. The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field

Answer: B, The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field. The K-index rates disturbance of Earth's geomagnetic field on a 0 to 9 scale, based on the largest swing a ground magnetometer records in each 3-hour interval. Because each value covers only 3 hours, it is a short-term measure; the daily A-index is derived from the eight 3-hourly readings. Low values (0 to 2) mean a quiet field and better HF conditions, while 5 or more indicates a geomagnetic storm.

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

  1. 180 miles
  2. 1,200 miles
  3. 12,000 miles
  4. 2,500 miles

Answer: B, 1,200 miles. The E region sits roughly 100 to 120 km (60 to 75 miles) above the Earth. Even a wave leaving at a very low angle can only come down so far from the transmitter after bending at that height. Earth's curvature limits a single E-region hop to about 1,200 miles. The higher F2 region allows hops of roughly 2,500 miles.

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

  1. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
  2. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
  3. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
  4. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector

Answer: C, Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone. Most of a skywave signal is refracted onward to land beyond the skip zone. Only a tiny fraction is scattered back or sideways by ionospheric irregularities and the ground into the skip zone. With so little energy taking that route, scatter signals heard there are usually weak.

G4 Amateur radio practices

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

  1. It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
  2. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
  3. It improves the frequency response
  4. It improves the resolution of the readings

Answer: B, It decreases the loading on circuits being measured. A voltmeter is connected in parallel with the circuit, so any current it draws changes the voltage it is measuring. A high input impedance, often 10 MΩ for a digital meter, draws very little current. That minimizes loading and keeps the reading close to the true voltage, especially in high-resistance circuits.

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

  1. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
  2. The ground rod is resonant
  3. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
  4. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

Answer: C, The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency. A ground wire is a transmission line at RF. If its length is near an odd multiple of a quarter wavelength, the low impedance at the ground rod is transformed to a high impedance at the equipment end. That leaves the chassis at a high RF voltage, so touching the radio, microphone or key can cause an RF burn.

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

  1. It reduces harmonic distortion
  2. It increases average power
  3. It reduces intermodulation distortion
  4. It increases peak power

Answer: B, It increases average power. An SSB transmitter's peak envelope power is capped by its rating and drive. A processor cannot raise that ceiling. What it does is lift the weaker parts of speech toward the peak, which raises the average-to-peak ratio. The result is higher average power at the same PEP.

G5 Electrical principles

What is impedance?

  1. The product of current and voltage
  2. The ratio of current to voltage
  3. The product of current and reactance
  4. The ratio of voltage to current

Answer: D, The ratio of voltage to current. Impedance (Z) is the total opposition a circuit offers to alternating current. It combines resistance and reactance and is found the same way as resistance in Ohm's law: Z = E / I, voltage divided by current. It is measured in ohms. For example, 10 V across a load drawing 0.2 A means Z = 10 V / 0.2 A = 50 ohms.

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

  1. Approximately 11 milliwatts
  2. Approximately 61 milliwatts
  3. Approximately 11 watts
  4. Approximately 61 watts

Answer: B, Approximately 61 milliwatts. When current and resistance are given, use P = I² x R. Convert 7.0 mA to 0.007 A first. P = (0.007 A)² x 1,250 Ω = 0.000049 x 1,250 = 0.06125 W, or about 61 mW. To check, E = I x R = 0.007 A x 1,250 Ω = 8.75 V, and 8.75 V x 0.007 A ≈ 0.061 W.

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

  1. 1,000 microfarads
  2. 0.07 microfarads
  3. 70 microfarads
  4. 14.3 microfarads

Answer: D, 14.3 microfarads. Capacitors in series combine like resistors in parallel. For two capacitors, use product over sum: C = (C1 x C2) / (C1 + C2) = (20 µF x 50 µF) / (20 µF + 50 µF) = 1000 / 70 ≈ 14.3 µF. The result is below the smaller 20 µF capacitor, as it should be.

G6 Circuit components

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

  1. 8.5 volts
  2. 10.5 volts
  3. 12 volts
  4. 6 volts

Answer: B, 10.5 volts. A 12 V lead-acid battery has six cells. Each cell should not be discharged below about 1.75 V, and 6 x 1.75 V = 10.5 V. Draining the battery further causes sulfation and plate damage that permanently reduce its capacity. Stopping at 10.5 V gives the longest service life.

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

  1. Comparatively low cost
  2. High capacitance for given volume
  3. High stability
  4. Tight tolerance

Answer: A, Comparatively low cost. Low voltage ceramic capacitors are mass-produced from inexpensive materials in huge quantities, so their main advantage is low cost. They are the everyday choice for bypassing and coupling, where exact value and stability matter less than price and availability.

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

  1. Large values of inductance may be obtained
  2. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
  3. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
  4. All these choices are correct

Answer: D, All these choices are correct. All three advantages are real. Ferrite's high permeability gives a lot of inductance from only a few turns. Ferrite mixes are formulated so their losses and permeability suit a chosen frequency range. The closed toroid shape keeps most of the magnetic flux inside the core, which limits coupling to nearby parts and reduces the need for shielding.

G7 Practical circuits

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

  1. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
  2. It eliminates ground loop current
  3. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
  4. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

Answer: D, It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed. A bleeder resistor is connected across the filter capacitors. Large filter capacitors can hold a lethal charge long after the supply is unplugged. The bleeder gives that charge a path to drain away safely, so the capacitors discharge within seconds once power is removed. It also places a small, constant load on the supply, which helps steady the output voltage.

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

  1. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
  2. Output is high only when both inputs are high
  3. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
  4. Output is low only when both inputs are high

Answer: B, Output is high only when both inputs are high. An AND gate works like two switches in series. Its output is high only when input 1 AND input 2 are both high. Any low input forces the output low. In truth-table form, only the 1,1 input row gives a 1 output.

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

  1. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
  2. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
  3. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
  4. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

Answer: B, All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing. Any RF signal can be described by its amplitude and phase over time. The I and Q pair captures both. By computing the right I and Q values, software can generate or demodulate AM, FM, SSB, CW, PSK, QAM or any other mode on the same hardware. A new mode is just new processing, not a new circuit.

G8 Signals and emissions

What is a link budget?

  1. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
  2. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
  3. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
  4. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity

Answer: C, The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver. A link budget totals every gain and loss between transmitter and receiver to predict the received signal level. The working in dB is: transmit power + transmit antenna gain + receive antenna gain − feed line, path and other losses. For example: 40 dBm + 10 dBi + 10 dBi − 140 dB = −80 dBm at the receiver.

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

  1. Phase inversion
  2. Heterodyning
  3. Frequency inversion
  4. Synthesizing

Answer: B, Heterodyning. Heterodyning means combining two RF signals in a nonlinear device, the mixer. The output contains their sum and difference frequencies. For example, 14.2 MHz mixed with 9 MHz gives 23.2 MHz and 5.2 MHz. Superheterodyne receivers and many transmitters use this to shift a signal to a new frequency.

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

  1. The connection is dropped
  2. Encoding reverts to the default character set
  3. Packets will be routed incorrectly
  4. The checksum overflows

Answer: A, The connection is dropped. ARQ (automatic repeat request) modes check each block at the receiver and ask for a resend when it arrives with errors. The sender retries only a set number of times. If the stations still cannot exchange a good block after those attempts, the link times out and the connection is dropped. The operators must then reconnect, ideally on a clearer frequency or when conditions improve.

G9 Antennas and feed lines

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

  1. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
  2. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
  3. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
  4. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

Answer: B, A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance. Power is reflected wherever a wave meets an impedance change. If the antenna's feed point impedance differs from the feed line's characteristic impedance, some energy is sent back toward the transmitter, and the SWR rises. For example, a 100-ohm load on 50-ohm coax gives an SWR of 2:1. The greater the mismatch, the more power is reflected.

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

  1. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
  2. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
  3. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
  4. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

Answer: B, The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction. Front-to-back ratio compares the power radiated in the direction of the main lobe with the power radiated in the opposite direction, 180 degrees away. It is usually stated in dB. A high front-to-back ratio helps reject signals and interference arriving from behind the beam.

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

  1. In the plane of the loop
  2. Broadside and in the plane of the loop
  3. Broadside to the loop
  4. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional

Answer: C, Broadside to the loop. An electrically small loop, under about 1/10 wavelength around, responds most strongly to signals arriving in the plane of the loop. Its deep, sharp nulls are broadside, along the loop's axis perpendicular to its plane. Those sharp nulls make small loops useful for direction finding and for nulling out noise or interference.

G0 Electrical and RF safety

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

  1. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
  2. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
  3. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
  4. All these choices are correct

Answer: A, Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields. Section 97.13(c)(2) says that if a routine evaluation shows RF fields could exceed the limits in accessible areas, the licensee must take action to prevent human exposure. Typical fixes are reducing power, raising or moving the antenna, limiting transmit time, or keeping people out of the affected area.

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

  1. AWG number 20
  2. AWG number 12
  3. AWG number 16
  4. AWG number 8

Answer: B, AWG number 12. The National Electrical Code requires copper conductors on a 20 A breaker to be at least AWG 12. Smaller AWG numbers mean thicker wire. A thicker wire carries more current without overheating. The breaker must trip before the wire can get hot, so the wire's ampacity must be at least the breaker rating. For comparison, AWG 14 goes with 15 A and AWG 10 with 30 A.

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

  1. Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
  2. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
  3. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
  4. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

Answer: D, Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder. Lead is a toxic metal that builds up in the body. Handling lead-tin solder leaves lead residue on your fingers. If you eat, drink or smoke without washing your hands, that residue can be swallowed. Wash your hands after soldering and keep food and drinks off the workbench.